Re: Stress accent?

[raybrown@macline.co.uk (Raymond A. Brown)]

At 13:28 6/4/98, Padraic Brown wrote:
>Jowan yscrifef:
[....]
>> We have it on the authority of the home page that these "-r"s
>> aren't pronounced in Modern Brithenig.  So, the question before
>> the house is, is it:
>>
>>       CANTARE > [kan 'tar] > [k@n 'ta]
>>
>> or
>>
>>       CANTARE > [kan 'tar] > ['kan t@r] > ['kan t@]
>>
>> I find the second sequence phonetically more plausible.
>
>I tend to agree with that.  If the accent stays where it was in Latin (cf.
>Kernu), then I think the -r would be difficult to expell.  It would be
>easier so to do without the accent.

Why?

The final -R has entirely disappeared in the infinitive ending -ER in
French even though the ending still bears the stress.  Also the final -R
has completely disappeared both in writing & pronunciation from _all_ the
Romanian infinitive endings, even tho the stress is still on the final
syllable.

The loss of final -R after -e- and -a- is not at all unusual.  In the
spoken German of south Germany & Austria it's not uncommon for such an R to
disappear after low vowels such as /a/, /E/ and /O/.  The complete loss
after -i- would be less likely but could certainly have come about through
analogy with /ar/ --> /a/ and /Er/ --> /E/.

With respect, I feel both John & Padraic are looking at this through
English eyes and not Romance ones.  From the actual examples of French &
Romanian, I can see nothing at all unplausible or unlikely in:

CANTARE --> /kan'tar/ --> /kan'ta/

Ray.


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Written in Net English        Humor not necessarily marked

Sorry for delayed response.
I haven't been able to get through to my ISP since
6th April   :=(
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